I’m wondering how the AZ SC could legitimately find that 19th century law written before AZ was a state would supercede over a more recently passed law in the state of Arizona.
I’m wondering how the AZ SC could legitimately find that 19th century law written before AZ was a state would supercede over a more recently passed law in the state of Arizona.
I’m wondering how the AZ SC could legitimately find that 19th century law written before AZ was a state would supercede over a more recently passed law in the state of Arizona.